A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the vagina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Hysterectomy is the most appropriate next step in the management of grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma, especially in a postmenopausal woman with bleeding.

A 62-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Physician Because of Bleeding