A midwife reviews the result of a client's syphilis serology test. The client, a G2P1 at 12 weeks' gestation, tested positive. Which of the following is the priority action of the midwife?
A) Administer a single dose of benzathine penicillin G through the intramuscular route.
B) Inform the client that she should avoid any form of sexual contact until she is treated.
C) Inform the client that drug treatment may not be effective at this time and that a cesarean section will be necessary during delivery.
D) Monitor the client for early detection of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1: A 38-year-old client at 12 weeks' gestation
Q3: A pregnant client comes to the facility
Q4: A midwife tells a client who is
Q5: A client who is 8 weeks pregnant
Q6: A midwife is managing the care of
Q7: A midwife is about to perform a
Q8: A 45-year-old client comes to the facility
Q9: A 25 - year - old client
Q10: A 23 - year - old client
Q11: An 18 - year - old G0P0
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