A 31-year-old, HIV-positive woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32-weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is significant for the fact that she has taken zidovudine throughout the pregnancy. Otherwise, her prenatal course has been unremarkable. She has no history of mental illness. She states that she has been weighing the benefits and risks of cesarean delivery in preventing transmission of the virus to her baby. After much deliberation, she has decided that she does not want a cesarean delivery and would like to attempt a vaginal delivery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Respecting the patient's decision and performing the vaginal delivery is the most appropriate next step in management. This approach honors the patient's autonomy and informed choice, especially considering that she has been on zidovudine, which reduces the risk of vertical transmission of HIV.

A 31-Year-Old, HIV-Positive Woman, Gravida 3, Para 2, at 32-Weeks