A 68-year-old man with locally advanced non-small-cell lung cancer is evaluated because of the new onset of low back pain over the past 2 weeks. It is relieved with ibuprofen, and his only other symptom is mild fatigue. The patient completed combined chemotherapy and radiation therapy 6 months ago, and restaging scans afterward showed marked shrinkage of the right perihilar mass. He has no muscle weakness. Plain radiograph of the thoracic and lumbar spine shows no abnormalities other than signs of mild osteoarthritis. Neurologic examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A) Gallium scan
B) Re-evaluation if the symptoms get worse
C) CT scan of the chest and abdomen with bone windows of the spine
D) MRI of the spine
E) Intravenous dexamethasone and MRI of the spine
Correct Answer:
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