A 23-year-old man is evaluated because of a painless right-sided scrotal mass. Ciprofloxacin, 500 mg every 12 hours, is administered for 10 days, but he notes little improvement in the swelling. His serum ?-fetoprotein level is elevated at 100 ng/mL, and his 13-human chorionic gonadotropin level is 64 m/UImL. Testicular ultrasound examination reveals a hypoechoic mass. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in his treatment?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The most appropriate next step in the treatment of a patient with a testicular mass and elevated tumor markers (?-fetoprotein and ?-human chorionic gonadotropin) suggestive of testicular cancer is an inguinal orchiectomy. This surgical procedure is both diagnostic and therapeutic, allowing for histopathological examination of the testicular tissue to confirm the diagnosis and to determine the specific type of testicular cancer, which is crucial for guiding further treatment.

A 23-Year-Old Man Is Evaluated Because of a Painless Right-Sided