A 72-year-old man was found to have an anterior rectal cancer at 2 cm from the anal verge. A CT scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis showed no evidence of metastatic disease. An MR scan of pelvis showed an anterior tumour abutting the prostate gland, radiologically staged as a T3, N1, M0 cancer. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) abdominoperineal resection
B) chemotherapy
C) long-course chemoradiation
D) short-course radiotherapy
E) total mesorectal excision
Correct Answer:
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