A & B are married. They have properties and they are governed by the conjugal partnership of gains. They negotiated for the sale of one (1) of their properties to C, but when the signing of the contract came, B did not consent to the sale. During the negotiation, they delivered the property to C. Is the sale valid?
A) The sale is valid because a contract is valid in whatever form it may be entered into.
B) The sale is void because it was done by A without the consent of B.
C) The sale is valid because the consent in the negotiation can be treated as consent in the perfection.
D) The sale is valid because the property has already been delivered to C.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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