Which of the following would not be appropriate in a patient with pain and point tenderness in his anatomical snuff box but no visible fracture?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

This option is not appropriate because of the potential of major overtreatment if there is no fracture. Splinting the patient and asking the patient to return for repeat radiographic evaluation is appropriate when there is clinical suspicion of a radiographically occult fracture that may become visible after 1 week because of resorption of bone mineral along the fracture line. Sending the patient for an immediate MRI or CT is appropriate because both modalities may show a radiographically occult fracture.

Which of the Following Would Not Be Appropriate in a Patient