A 57-year-old woman has been diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis and has expressed surprise to her care provider, citing a lifetime largely free of gynecological health problems. She has asked what may have contributed to her problem. How can the care provider best respond?
A) "The lower levels of estrogen since you've begun menopause make your vagina prone to infection."
B) "Vaginitis is not usually the direct result of any single problem, but rather an inevitability of the vaginal dryness that accompanies menopause."
C) "This type of vaginitis is most commonly a symptom of a latent sexually transmitted infection that you may have contracted in the distant past."
D) "The exact cause of this problem isn't known, but it can usually be resolved with a diet high in probiotic bacteria."
Correct Answer:
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