A 24-year-old female presents with vulvar pruritus accompanied by irritation, pain on urination, erythema, and an odorless, thick, acid vaginal discharge. She denies sexual activity during the last 6 months. Her records show that she has diabetes mellitus and uses oral contraceptives. Which category of antimicrobial medication is most likely to clear her symptoms?
A) Clotrimazole, an antifungal agent
B) Penicillin V potassium, a broad-spectrum antibiotic
C) Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone antibiotic
D) Tenofovir, an antiviral agent

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The character of the discharge and the lack of recent sexual activity suggest infection with Candida, which can exist asymptomatically and flare up only if conditions such as an imbalance in normal vaginal flora resulting from antibiotic treatment, diabetes, or oral contraceptive use enable the fungus to proliferate. Candidiasis responds well to treatment with azole antifungal agents.

A 24-Year-Old Female Presents with Vulvar Pruritus Accompanied by Irritation