The law of negligence requires a court to consider the foreseeability test. In so doing, which of the following would allow the court to hold a defendant liable for negligence?

Question

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The foreseeability test requires the court to determine whether the harm caused to the plaintiff was foreseeable to the defendant at the time of the act or omission. Option B describes an objective anticipation of harm, which would meet this requirement.

A) An unlimited or indeterminate class of victims entitled to compensation is not relevant to the foreseeability test, as it does not address the specific harm caused to the plaintiff.

C) Breach of the obligation to be mindful of the plaintiff's legitimate interests is a general standard of care, but does not directly relate to the foreseeability of harm.

D) A plaintiff's ensuing loss of profit arising from a misstatement does not necessarily involve harm that is foreseeable to the defendant, and therefore would not be sufficient for the court to hold the defendant liable for negligence based on the foreseeability test.

The Law of Negligence Requires a Court to Consider the Foreseeability