A client with a venous thrombo-embolism (VTE) is started on enoxaparin and warfarin. The client asks the nurse why two medications are necessary. Which of the following responses by the nurse is accurate?
A)"Administration of two anticoagulants reduces the risk for recurrent venous thrombosis."
B)"Enoxaparin will start to dissolve the clot, and warfarin will prevent any more clots from occurring."
C)"The enoxaparin will work immediately, but the warfarin takes several days to have an effect on coagulation."
D)"Because of the potential for a pulmonary embolism, it is important for you to have more than one anticoagulant."

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is used because of the immediate effect on coagulation and discontinued once the international normalized ratio (INR) value indicates that the warfarin has reached a therapeutic level. LMWH has no thrombolytic
properties. The use of two anticoagulants is not related to the risk for pulmonary embolism, and two are not necessary to reduce the risk for another VTE.

A Client with a Venous Thrombo-Embolism (VTE) Is Started on Enoxaparin