(a)What happens to the fundamental value of a country's exchange rate when it raises its money supply in a fixed exchange-rate system? Does this make the currency overvalued or undervalued if originally the official rate equaled the fundamental value?
(b)What happens to the fundamental value of a country's exchange rate when the foreign country raises its money supply? Does this make the currency overvalued or undervalued if originally the official rate equaled the fundamental value?
(c)So,if a country wants to maintain its official rate equal to its fundamental value,what must it do when the foreign country raises its money supply? What happens to inflation?
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