In ideal occlusion the mandibular first molar is stolarized because neither its mesial nor distal contact areas are open.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

In ideal occlusion the maxillary first molar is stolarized,which means that it is tipped mesially and touches both the mandibular first and second molars.Although it is true that in ideal occlusion the surrounding contact areas would not be open,this is not a definitive feature of a stolarized first molar.Note that very few individuals have ideal occlusion.

In Ideal Occlusion the Mandibular First Molar Is Stolarized Because