Miller and Modigliani proclaim that,under certain ideal conditions,dividend policy is irrelevant.
What is it that they are specifically proclaiming to be irrelevant? Explain with the following example.Assume that a firm has $100,000 in assets at market value,no debt,and 100 shares outstanding.Further,$10,000 of the assets is in cash,which represents the recent net income of the firm.Now the firm can choose whether to pay out,say,a 50% dividend,which will necessitate the issuance of $5,000 in new shares,or to pay no dividend and plow back all $10,000 of earnings into a project with an attractive NPV.
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