A bone tumor sample appears to be heterozygous for a p53 mutation.The most likely explanation for this finding is:
A) Mutated p53 is an oncogene.
B) The p53 mutation is resulting in a dominant negative p53 protein.
C) The p53 mutation is resulting in a premature stop codon,and no functional protein is made from that allele.
D) There was a mistake in labeling the tissue sample-all tumors musts lack p53.
Correct Answer:
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