For a binomial distribution, the mean is 0.6 and n = 2. What is $\pi$for this distribution?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The formula for the variance of a binomial distribution is Var(X) = np(1-p), where n is the number of trials and p is the probability of success on each trial.
In this case, n = 2 and the mean is 0.6, so we can solve for p:
0.6 = 2p
p = 0.3
Then, the variance is:
Var(X) = 2(0.3)(1-0.3) = 0.42
Finally, the standard deviation is the square root of the variance:
SD = sqrt(0.42) = 0.648
Therefore, F1F1F1S1F1F1F10 is equal to 0.648.

For a Binomial Distribution, the Mean Is 0 π\piπ For This Distribution? A) 0

For a Binomial Distribution, the Mean Is 0 $\pi$ For This Distribution?
A) 0