A U.S.firm holds an asset in Great Britain and faces the following scenario:
where,
P* = Pound sterling price of the asset held by the U.S.firm
P = Dollar price of the same asset
Which of the following would be an effective hedge?
A) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate,F1($/£) ,that prevails at time zero.
B) Buy £2,500 forward at the 1-year forward rate,F1($/£) ,that prevails at time zero.
C) Sell £25,000 forward at the 1-year forward rate,F1($/£) ,that prevails at time zero.
D) none of the options
Correct Answer:
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