A U.S.firm holds an asset in Great Britain and faces the following scenario: Where
P* = Pound sterling price of the asset held by the U.S.firm
The CFO decides to hedge his exposure by selling forward the expected value of the pound denominated cash flow at F1($/£) = $2/£.As a result,
A) the firm's exposure to the exchange rate is made worse.
B) he has a nearly perfect hedge.
C) he has a perfect hedge.
D) none of the options
Correct Answer:
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