Would ID50 and LD50 necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?
A) Yes, because the number of viruses that infect 50% of a test population should also kill 50% of that test population.
B) No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID50 value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD50 value) . A prime example of this is the rhinovirus (common cold virus) .
C) No, because very few viruses are lethal, yet many are highly infectious. The 2 values should ALWAYS be different.
D) Yes, because what we're actually describing here is infection/killing of individual CELLS, not of entire organisms. If a cell is infected, it will always be killed.
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