When performing an assessment of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease,the nurse notes the presence of pitting edema in the lower legs bilaterally.The skin is puffy and tight but of normal color.There is no increased redness or tenderness over his lower legs,and the peripheral pulses are equal and strong.In this situation,which of the following is the most likely cause of the edema?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Bilateral edema or edema that is generalized over the entire body is caused by a central problem such as heart failure or kidney failure.Unilateral edema usually has a local or peripheral cause.

When Performing an Assessment of a 65-Year-Old Man with a History