A PCR assay is performed on a patient with presumptive mantle cell lymphoma using primers against the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene and the cyclin D1 (CCND1) gene. Capillary gel electrophoresis was used for product detection, and the patient did not have a detectable PCR product. All controls were acceptable. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this result?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The t(11;14) translocation between the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene and the CCND1 gene is a characteristic genetic abnormality in mantle cell lymphoma. PCR primers targeting these two genes are used to detect this translocation. A negative PCR result indicates that the patient is negative for this translocation and therefore negative for mantle cell lymphoma. All controls being acceptable ensures that the PCR assay was performed correctly. Therefore, interpretation choice B is correct.

A PCR Assay Is Performed on a Patient with Presumptive