Which of the following is generally not a first-line treatment for post herpetic neuralgia?
A) Intrathecal methylprednisolone
B) Gabapentin
C) 5% lidocaine patch
D) Topical capsaicin
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q10: Cellulitis is a deep skin infection involving
Q11: The immunofluorescent antibody (IFA)is a laboratory test
Q12: Which of the following descriptions accurately documents
Q13: An 82-year-old female has a "pimple" on
Q14: A 64-year-old male presents with an exacerbation
Q15: Asymmetrical bi-color lesion with irregular border measuring
Q17: A full thickness pressure ulcer is partially
Q18: A smooth round nodule with a pearly
Q19: A nursing home resident with a Stage
Q20: Patients who have an underlying tinea infection
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents