An older client has recently been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) . The client's spouse is taking paroxetine (Paxil) . A nurse assesses that the client is experiencing restlessness, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and tremors. Which complication should a nurse suspect, and why?
A) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; caused by ingestion of two different serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; caused by ingestion of an SSRI and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
C) Serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingestion of an SSRI and an MAOI
D) Serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingestion of two different SSRIs
Correct Answer:
Verified
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