The nurse notes the laboratory testing performed on a 78-year-old patient reveals a serum glucose level of 130 mg/dL. The nurse performs an assessment of the patient and notes the absence of polyuria, polydipsia, or polyphagia. Which of the following impressions by the nurse is most correct?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The patient does not have any of the classic symptoms of diabetes, so it is unlikely that the patient has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The patient may have eaten a meal with high sugar content prior to the testing, or the laboratory results might be erroneous. However, the most correct impression by the nurse is that the patient will need to be assessed for other manifestations of diabetes.

The Nurse Notes the Laboratory Testing Performed on a 78-Year-Old