A patient who is taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and mild tremors. The nurse will ask the patient's provider about which course of action?
A) Administering a direct dopamine antagonist
B) Giving an anticholinergic medication
C) Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug
D) Switching to a second-generation antipsychotic drug

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The patient is showing signs of parkinsonism, an extrapyramidal effect associated with antipsychotic medications. Anticholinergic medications are indicated. A direct dopamine antagonist would counter the effects of the antipsychotic and remove any beneficial effect it has. Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic medication would only worsen the extrapyramidal symptoms. A second-generation antipsychotic medication may be used if parkinsonism is severe, since the risk of parkinsonism is lower than with the FGAs. This patient is exhibiting mild symptoms, so this is not necessary at this point.

A Patient Who Is Taking a First-Generation Antipsychotic (FGA) Drug