A 40-year-old male patient is concerned with his inability to have an erection since he was prescribed an antispasmodic for a muscular back injury and hydrocortisone cream to manage a chronic integumentary condition. What should the nurse suspect this patient is experiencing?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The antispasmodic medication is most likely causing the patient's inability to have an erection, as one of the common side effects of this type of medication is erectile dysfunction. Additionally, hydrocortisone cream is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction, and age-related erectile dysfunction would not occur suddenly after starting a new medication. The back injury may contribute to the patient's overall physical health, but it would not directly affect his ability to have an erection.

A 40-Year-Old Male Patient Is Concerned with His Inability to Have