In the simple Keynesian model, why does actual investment spending have to equal saving in the absence of the government and foreign sectors? Is this TRUE only for the equilibrium? Explain.

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The Answer of In the simple Keynesian model, why does actual investment spending have to equal saving in the absence of the government and foreign sectors? Is this TRUE only for the equilibrium? Explain.

In the Simple Keynesian Model, Why Does Actual Investment Spending