Which of the following is a true statement?
A) A decrease in aggregate demand was not possible according to the classical economists but was possible according to Keynes.
B) A decrease in aggregate demand has no short-run effects according to the classical economists but had significant effects according to Keynes.
C) Classical economists believed real GDP adjusted more than prices when aggregate demand fell, while Keynes argued that prices adjusted more than output.
D) Classical economists believed price adjusted more than output when aggregate demand fell, while Keynes argued real GDP adjusted more than prices.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q161: In an economic downturn, sticky wages and
Q163: Real GDP is _ determined in the
Q166: In the Keynesian model, to understand the
Q168: The simple Keynesian model assumes that
A) gross
Q169: In the short run, an increase in
Q171: The relationship between the price level and
Q175: The Keynesian portion of the short-run aggregate
Q176: The short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve represents
Q179: According to Keynes, the classical model could
Q180: The Keynesian short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve
A)
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents