A woman is deaf because of being homozygous recessive at an autosomal locus.She marries a deaf man who is also homozygous recessive at an autosomal locus.They have two children who have normal hearing.Assuming that this couple is the biological parents of these children, how is this situation MOST reasonably explained?
A) Imprinting-the allele from the father is active, and the allele from the mother is inactive in the children.
B) Epistasis-two genes are involved with the alleles at one locus suppressing gene activity at a second locus.
C) Sex-limited-the trait is only expressed in one gender but not in both.
D) Imprinting-the allele from the mother is active, and the allele from the father is inactive in the children.
E) Complementation-the parents are homozygous recessive at different loci, and the children are heterozygous at both.
Correct Answer:
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