Is there such a thing as "good taste?" Plato and Aristotle would have answered "Yes," in light of their shared belief that beauty (or,more generally,aesthetic value)is objective.
Many people today,however,reject their objectivism,claiming instead that "Beauty is in the eye of the beholder.
" This means that the reality of beauty is subjective,depending on the responses and tastes of people to artwork.
This is a much more democratic viewpoint insofar as it seems to imply the equality of all tastes.
However,some philosophers,in particular,Hume and Kant,have developed a middle ground,between Plato and Aristotle's strong objectivism and democratic subjectivism.
They try to defend good taste and some version of subjectivism.
Write an essay on this disagreement.
Start by laying out Plato and Aristotle's viewpoint and its implications for aesthetic taste.
Then describe the democratic,subjectivist response.Follow this with an overview of Hume and Kant's viewpoints on taste.
Do you believe either Hume or Kant has succeeded in carving out a workable compromise?
Correct Answer:
Verified
View Answer
Unlock this answer now
Get Access to more Verified Answers free of charge
Q25: According to Plato, when we fall in
Q40: Suppose a group of educated judges agreed
Q42: You are an administrator in a school
Q43: Write a fictional argumentative dialogue between two
Q45: Should art ever be banned or censored,if
Q45: How does Aristotle explain the pleasure we
Q46: What common thread links contemporary efforts at
Q47: Plato believed that beauty was a transcendent
Q48: Briefly explain why, according to Schiller, art
Q53: Why does Kant believe that sharing an
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents