Deck 11: Motivation and Emotion

Question 1

In general, what effect does the presence of other people have on the amount of food an individual eats?

A) The presence of others makes people eat less.
B) The presence of others makes people eat more.
C) The presence of others has no effect on the amount people typically eat.
D) The presence of others can make people eat more or less than usual, depending on the situation.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which of the following is an example of an emotional dialect?

A) Experiencing anger
B) Avoiding laughter in church
C) Raising one's chin to express contempt
D) Smiling as a sign of happiness

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Affiliation motivation is:

A) the drive to have as many friends as possible.
B) the desire to be around other people as often as possible.
C) the need to have at least a few permanent meaningful relationships.
D) the desire to be isolated from others.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following factors increases an individual's risk for illness, heart disease, and even cancer?

A) Mortality salience
B) Loneliness
C) Performance motives
D) Avoidance goals

Question 5

Alfred Kinsey is famous for being one of the first scientists to study _____.

A) human sexuality
B) obesity in children
C) peer pressure
D) facial expressions

Question 6

The tendency of the body to maintain a steady state of functioning is called

A) stability.
B) drive reduction.
C) homeostasis.
D) physiological balance.

Question 7

The on-off switches for hunger sensations are located in the ___________.

A) sympathetic nervous system
B) amygdala
C) parasympathetic nervous system
D) hypothalamus

Question 8

Louis practices shooting baskets after school because he doesn't want his friends to make fun of him for being bad at basketball. Louis's motivation to practice is most accurately described as driven by a(n) _____ goal.

A) shame
B) mastery
C) avoidance
D) approach

Question 9

Which of the following is an example of a display rule?

A) Biting one's lip in embarrassment
B) Dropping one's jaw in surprise
C) Suppressing anger during a debate
D) Expressing happiness to a loved one

Question 10

Motivation is best described as

A) the physiological triggers that tell us we may be deprived of something and cause us to seek out what is needed, such as food.
B) the body's physiological processes that allow it to maintain consistent internal states in response to the outer environment.
C) the stimuli we seek to reduce the drives such as social approval and companionship, food, water, and other needs.
D) the physiological and psychological processes underlying the initiation of behaviors that direct organisms toward specific goals.

Question 11

Gillian drinks a lot of coffee while studying all night. The caffeine in the coffee causes Gillian's heart to start racing and her hands to begin shaking. Suddenly, Gillian begins to feel fear and anxiety for no apparent reason. Gillian's experience is best explained by which theory of emotions?

A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
B) James-Lange theory of emotion
C) Facial feedback
D) Cannon-Bard theory

Question 12

The chief function of homeostasis is to

A) prevent balance.
B) maintain a steady state.
C) regulate emotions.
D) control sexual urges.

Question 13

Controlled studies of polygraph recordings indicate that they should be most accurately described as detecting _____.

A) parasympathetic activity
B) lies
C) arousal
D) negative emotions

Question 14

Which of the following statements is true about how humans display emotions?

A) While some basic emotions are universally recognized, different cultures have unique ways of displaying some emotions.
B) All emotional displays are understood across all cultures.
C) There are no emotional displays that are universally understood across all cultures.
D) Emotional displays are determined by context, but not by culture.

Question 15

Steven is paralyzed from the neck down and does not experience the autonomic responses that usually accompany fear. Despite this injury, he continues to experience fear. Which theory of emotion is contradicted by this observation?

A) Cannon-Bard
B) Two-factor theory
C) James-Lange theory
D) Physiological theory

Question 16

A(n) _________ refers to when it is appropriate to show a specific emotion.

A) emotional dialect
B) display rule
C) context rule
D) display dialect

Question 17

The psychology of motivation can be best summarized as the study of

A) how decisions are made.
B) the processes underlying goal-directed behavior.
C) the libido's effects on behavior.
D) how rewards and punishments affect behavior.

Question 18

Luisa is working out at a gym and her body temperature begins to rise. To cool itself down, her body begins to sweat. After showing however, her body temperature drops below ideal, so her body begins to shiver to warm itself up. This example illustrates the concept of

A) libido.
B) homeostasis.
C) satiation.
D) drives.

Question 19

People are least likely to procrastinate when they are genuinely interested in the task and believe they can gain something from it. This is known as a(n) ________ goal.

A) mastery-avoidance
B) mastery-approach
C) performance-avoidance
D) avoidance-mastery

Question 20

Some people who have temporal lobe epilepsy describe sensations of _____when seizures occur.

A) painful
B) "raw fear"
C) out-of-body experiences
D) religious experiences

Question 21

Most people have a preference for foods with a high fat content (e.g., red meat, cheese, cream). From an evolutionary perspective, what does this suggest?

A) Modern humans should eat a diet rich in high fat food.
B) All animals prefer a diet high fat diet.
C) At some point in our evolutionary history, seeking out high fat foods was adaptive.
D) Early humans were mostly vegetarians.

Question 22

The lateral hypothalamus may be involved in

A) stoppage of eating.
B) the onset of eating.
C) processing low fats.
D) food allergies.

Question 23

The goal of motivated behavior is often to _____________ a drive.

A) reduce
B) maximize
C) maintain
D) create

Question 24

Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas. What role does it play in the body?

A) Insulin converts fat stores into energy the body can use.
B) Insulin stimulates stomach contractions and appetite.
C) Insulin detects blood sugar levels.
D) Insulin helps cells store circulating glucose for future use.

Question 25

In a study discussed in your textbook, participants had nutrients delivered directly into their stomachs via a feeding tube. Compared to control subjects who believed they were being tube-fed but were not, tube-fed participants

A) consumed more food.
B) consumed less food.
C) consumed the same amount of food.
D) consumed less nutritious food but more junk food.

Question 26

Research using brain imaging technology indicates that tasting foods high in fat directly stimulates ____________ areas of the brain.

A) disgust
B) pleasure
C) risk-taking
D) attentional

Question 27

When specialized cells detect __________ levels of ____________, they trigger an increase in hunger.

A) high; insulin
B) high; glucose
C) low; insulin
D) low; glucose

Question 28

Which two hormones are released by the digestive system, and are involved in the regulation of hunger?

A) CCK and ghrelin
B) oxytocin and vasopressin
C) oxytocin and CCK
D) ghrelin and vasopressin

Question 29

The ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) may be involved in

A) increasing hunger.
B) stopping the eating response.
C) processing low fats.
D) food allergies.

Question 30

Phyllis feels hungry even after she has eaten large meals and has been gaining weight. A doctor diagnoses her with a neurological disorder that affects a specific structure in the brain. Which of the following is most likely to be the affected brain region?

A) thalamus
B) basal ganglia
C) hypothalamus
D) locus coeruleus

Question 31

One factor in hunger seems to be the increase in __________, which causes blood sugar levels to eventually drop several hours after we eat.

A) cholesterol
B) lipoproteins
C) insulin
D) glucose

Question 32

Which of the following is true regarding the role of taste and texture in eating habits?

A) Which foods we eat are determined much more by their nutritional value than their tastes and textures.
B) Taste and texture influence our enjoyment of food, but not our overall eating habits.
C) Paradoxically, we eat smaller portions of foods whose taste and textures we prefer.
D) Taste and texture play a large role in determining which foods we eat and in what amounts.

Question 33

Hunger and thirst are examples of

A) libidos.
B) approach goals.
C) incentives.
D) drives.

Question 34

Which of the following would NOT be considered a psychological factor that motivates eating?

A) social setting
B) low blood sugar
C) flavor and texture
D) portion size

Question 35

Saying "I'm full" at the end of a meal is a common way to let others know that you have reached the point of

A) homeostasis.
B) satiation.
C) maximum drive.
D) social facilitation.

Question 36

Glucostats are

A) cells that can detect glucose levels.
B) drugs that block the absorption of glucose.
C) hormones that help cells store glucose for future use.
D) a category of sugars used by the brain and body for energy.

Question 37

What do sugar and addictive drugs have in common?

A) They create states of euphoria in high doses.
B) They stimulate activity in the hypothalamus.
C) They inhibit self-control by inhibiting the cingulate gyrus.
D) They stimulate dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens.

Question 38

The two areas of the hypothalamus which appear to be related to eating behavior as a result of controlling the level of glucose in the body are called _________________ and _________________.

A) ventromedial hypothalamus; lateral hypothalamus
B) lateral hypothalamus; basal hypothalamus
C) basal hypothalamus; ventrolateral hypothalamus
D) none of the above

Question 39

Rested is to tired as satiation is to

A) sleep.
B) hungry.
C) aroused.
D) full.

Question 40

In general, motivated behavior occurs in response to which two factors?

A) drives and incentives
B) hunger and satiation
C) reward and punishment
D) food and sex

Question 41

Omar loves going to the restaurant with the bottomless bowl of soup, because he thinks it's a great value. If Omar is like most volunteers in the bottomless bowl study, he will eat 70% more if

A) he does not know his bowl is being refilled.
B) he is reminded of the amount he is paying for the soup.
C) he is eating with someone else who is not eating much.
D) he refills his own bowl.

Question 42

Another term for a person's sex drive or desire for sexual activity is his or her

A) orgasmic motivation.
B) sexual response cycle.
C) sexual orientation.
D) libido.

Question 43

An eating disorder characterized by episodes of excessive eating followed by forced vomiting or the use of laxatives is called

A) anorexia nervosa.
B) Adonis complex.
C) bulimia.
D) self-starvation.

Question 44

For years, Jenna ate one toaster pastry for breakfast. Then the company changed their packaging so that the toaster pastries were wrapped in sets of two. Ever since this change occurred, Jenna has had two pastries for breakfast. This is an example of

A) social facilitation.
B) modeling.
C) impression management.
D) the unit bias.

Question 45

Which of the following is true about the following claim: "Men are more likely to masturbate and report casual sex."

A) This is a stereotype, men do not engage in these behaviors any more than women.
B) This is true for the vast majority of men and women.
C) On average this is true, but there is a high amount of variability in these behaviors for both men and women.
D) The opposite is actually true; women engage in these behaviors more frequently than men.

Question 46

The first systematic surveys of sexual behavior were conducted from 1938 to 1952 by

A) Masters and Johnson.
B) Meston and Buss.
C) Alfred Kinsey.
D) Sigmund Freud.

Question 47

The prevalence of ____________ is 20% or worse in almost every U.S. state.

A) anorexia
B) bulimia
C) obesity
D) malnutrition

Question 48

Samantha is currently in therapy for treatment of an eating disorder. She is dangerously thin but perceives herself as overweight. To control her weight she starves herself. Samantha is diagnosed with which of the following disorders?

A) anorexia nervosa
B) Adonis complex
C) bulimia nervosa
D) binge-eating disorder

Question 49

Zulma is currently in therapy for treatment of an eating disorder. Every day she eats a box of donuts and an entire bag of chips and then makes herself vomit. Zulma most likely has which of the following disorders?

A) binge-eating disorder
B) Adonis complex
C) bulimia nervosa
D) anorexia nervosa

Question 50

Kinsey believed that

A) sexual orientation was an either/or situation.
B) sexual orientation was on a continuum.
C) sexual orientation was too sensitive to be studied.
D) premarital sex was fundamentally destructive to society.

Question 51

In experiments where bowls of soup were secretly filled through a tube so that the soup never ran out, which of the following happened?

A) Participants felt full at the same time as control participants, but continued to eat anyway.
B) Participants ate significantly more than control participants, but did not feel more satiated.
C) Participants felt full at the same time as control participants and stopped eating.
D) Participants ate significantly less than control participants, but felt equally satiated.

Question 52

Nila's younger brother does not like the meatloaf their mother made for dinner. When Nila is not looking, her brother secretly scoops some of his meatloaf onto her plate so that, although Nila is eating meatloaf, the amount on her plate remains about the same. Which of the following is most likely to happen?

A) Nila will eat her normal amount and then stop when she feels full.
B) Nila will eat less than she normally would.
C) Nila will eat more than she normally would.
D) Nila will develop a dislike for meatloaf.

Question 53

Petra is on a date. She really likes her food, but stops herself after eating only one-third because she doesn't want her date to think she is a glutton. Petra's behavior is an example of

A) social facilitation.
B) modeling.
C) impression management.
D) the unit bias.

Question 54

In one study discussed in your textbook, healthy individuals volunteered to receive all the nutrients their bodies needed through tube feeding. What do the results of this study suggest?

A) People primarily eat to replenish nutrients.
B) The stomach has specialized receptors to detect nutrients.
C) People continue to eat, even when their nutritional needs have been met.
D) Nutritious food elevates hunger faster than non-nutritious food.

Question 55

Which of the following is an example of the unit bias?

A) buying a second bottle of soda because the store has a "buy one, get one free" sale
B) adding more sugar to a cup of coffee because it is bitter
C) asking for a second helping of pasta
D) eating more chips in one sitting from a "jumbo" bag than a regular size bag

Question 56

_______________ is an eating disorder characterized by a fear of being fat, a distorted body image, radically reduced consumption of food, and emaciation.

A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Body-image distortion
C) Bulimia
D) Leptin

Question 57

Which of the following people will be most likely to eat the most?

A) Frank who is eating with his boss who is dieting.
B) Sarah who usually has whole fruit for her mid-day snack.
C) Barb who is visiting friends who readily eat seconds and thirds.
D) Henry who is having dinner with his family who always serve relatively small portions.

Question 58

Eating disorders and body-image distortions among boys and men often take a different form than is typically seen with women. For example, they are more likely to

A) starve themselves and exercise compulsively to be more muscular.
B) binge on foods high in fat and starches.
C) use inactivity to try to reduce the size of their bodies.
D) eat normally, but purge anyway.

Question 59

Which is NOT one of the usual criticisms of Kinsey's methodologies?

A) Most of the volunteers were homosexual.
B) The sample was only those who were willing to report sexual behavior.
C) Kinsey's methods were flawed and controversial.
D) Kinsey tended to make sweeping generalizations based on small samples.

Question 60

Wanda goes to the cafeteria with her coworkers. She is not hungry, but eats because everyone else in the group is. This is an example of

A) social facilitation.
B) the minimal eating norm.
C) impression management.
D) the unit bias.

Question 61

Sexual motivation is influenced by many factors. Which of the following reflects reasons people choose to have sex, according to a survey by Meston & Buss (2007)?

A) instrumental reasons
B) emotional reasons.
C) reproduction.
D) all of the above.

Question 62

In one study homosexual men and heterosexual women showed greater activation of the ________________, while smelling a male derivative of testosterone found in sweat.

A) medial forebrain bundle
B) medial preoptic area of the hypothalamus
C) cerebral cortex
D) amygdala

Question 63

Research indicates that, when it came to orgasms,

A) the capacity for sexual response of men surpasses that of women.
B) the similarity between men and women depends on the source of stimulation (vaginal versus clitoral).
C) men and women experience them quite differently.
D) men and women are remarkably similar.

Question 64

Some research suggests that an area of the _____________ is on average smaller in brains of gay males than heterosexual males.

A) hippocampus
B) thalamus
C) amygdala
D) hypothalamus

Question 65

_______________ famously observed volunteers masturbating or having sex while specialized equipment monitored their physiological responses.

A) Masters and Johnson
B) Meston and Buss
C) Alfred Kinsey
D) Sigmund Freud

Question 66

The second phase of the sexual response is

A) excitement.
B) plateau.
C) orgasm.
D) resolution.

Question 67

Which of the following most accurately describes sexuality in adults in their 60s through 80s?

A) Sexuality remains fairly constant throughout adulthood.
B) Sexuality decreases in older adults, but this is generally not considered a problem during this phase of life.
C) Sexuality decreases in older adults, which is a source of discontent for many older adults.
D) Sexuality increases in later adulthood, primarily because children moving out and retirement allow for more intimacy.

Question 68

The four stages of sexual activity include excitement, plateau, orgasm and

A) refraction.
B) rest.
C) reinforcement.
D) resolution.

Question 69

Masters and Johnson reported that unlike men, women

A) can only achieve 1 orgasm in a 12 hour period.
B) do not have a refractory period and can achieve many orgasms during a sexual encounter.
C) need more stimulation to achieve an orgasm with oral sex.
D) have a longer refractory period than men.

Question 70

Sexual orientation can best be understood by considering

A) what causes heterosexuality.
B) who people have sex with.
C) what history of abuse is present.
D) how a person was raised.

Question 71

Which of the following is true of Simon LeVay's finding that a region of the brain is typically smaller in homosexual males than it is in heterosexual males?

A) If true, this would be strong evidence that sexual orientation is genetically determined.
B) A confounding variable in the study is that many of the gay men in the study died from HIV complications.
C) LeVay's findings have been replicated many times.
D) If true, this would be strong evidence that sexual orientation is environmentally determined.

Question 72

The final phase of the sexual response is

A) excitement.
B) plateau.
C) orgasm.
D) resolution.

Question 73

Blood levels of the hormone oxytocin surge in both men and women just after which phase of the sexual response cycle?

A) excitement
B) plateau
C) orgasm
D) resolution

Question 74

Which of the following is the best definition of sexual orientation?

A) a person's sex as determined by his or her genes
B) a categorization based on the gender of a person's sexual partners
C) a consistent preference for sexual relations with members of the same sex, opposite sex, or both
D) a categorization based on whether a person's behavior matches their biological sex or not

Question 75

Which statement is consistent with Masters and Johnson's findings?

A) Women respond more slowly but cannot stay aroused as long as men.
B) Many women can have multiple orgasms.
C) Women experience a refractory period prior to orgasm.
D) Heterosexual women report that penis size matters.

Question 76

Rashid has just had an orgasm. However, his partner is still excited and wants Rashid to continue his sexual activity. Unfortunately, Rashid has lost his erection. Rashid is probably now in the

A) refractory period.
B) male menopause.
C) disruptive period.
D) plateau.

Question 77

Masters and Johnson's original participants in the study of human sexual response were

A) prostitutes.
B) church elders and parishioners.
C) prisoners in the local jails.
D) volunteers from introductory psychology classes.

Question 78

Melvin has finished having sex approximately 30 minutes ago and his partner is interested in having sex again. However, Melvin is not able to achieve an erection. Melvin is in the

A) refractory period.
B) stagnation period.
C) seminal period.
D) growth period.

Question 79

The first phase of the sexual response is

A) excitement.
B) plateau.
C) orgasm.
D) resolution.

Question 80

Equipment to measure physiological activity during sexual activity was used by

A) Kinsey.
B) Freud.
C) Skinner.
D) Masters and Johnson.