Deck 4: Testing and Selecting Employees

Question 1

A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to solicit information from a person's oral responses to oral inquiries.

A) interview
B) presentation
C) prospectus
D) invigilation

Answer 1

A

Question 2

What is the third thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?

A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following is not an aspect of intercultural adaptability?

A) supervisory management
B) perception management
C) relationship management
D) self management

Answer 3

A

Question 4

By some estimates, ________ percent of employees have stolen from their employers.

A) 75
B) 80
C) 26
D) 49

Question 5

XYZ company uses a projective personality test on James. Subsequently, James is denied employment. James can ________.

A) be angry but nothing else
B) claim the results were false
C) claim the results violate the ADA
D) B and C only

Question 6

Which of the following is not a common interviewing mistake?

A) snap judgments
B) negative emphasis
C) attractiveness of candidate
D) All of the above.

Question 7

What is the first thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?

A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

Question 8

What percentage of HR managers report checking applicants' background?

A) 82
B) 80
C) 75
D) 68

Question 9

Careful testing and screening lead to ________.

A) improved performance on your own part
B) screening out "undesirables"
C) improved motivation among all including those who were not hired
D) A and B only

Question 10

The leaderless group discussion is part of the ________.

A) management assessment center
B) personality test battery
C) Wonderlic test
D) None of the above.

Question 11

Which assessment method that Dial Corp. used was shown to have a high adverse impact?

A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) strength tests

Question 12

Which assessment method has a high content validity?

A) cognitive ability tests
B) personality tests
C) structured interviews
D) job knowledge tests

Question 13

Which of the following is not a type of personnel test?

A) ACO
B) cognitive abilities
C) motor and physical abilities
D) interest inventories

Question 14

Which of the following is a commonly verified background area?

A) legal eligibility for employment
B) dates of prior employment
C) military service
D) All of the above.

Question 15

Which of the following is a question that disabled persons would like interviewers to ask during the interview?

A) Is there any kind of setting or special equipment that would facilitate the interview process for you?
B) Provide an example of how you would use technology to carry out your job duties?
C) Other than technology, what other kind of support did you have in previous jobs?
D) All of the above.

Question 16

Which of the following is recommended regarding interviewing questions?

A) ask open-ended questions
B) ask questions that can be answered yes or no
C) put words into the applicant's mouth to try to trip them up
D) B and C only

Question 17

Interviews should begin by ________.

A) establishing rapport
B) jumping right into the heart of the matter
C) highlighting what the interview will be doing
D) explaining the qualifications of the interviewer

Question 18

What is the second thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?

A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

Question 19

Which of the following is not a "big five" personality dimension?

A) inwardness
B) extroversion
C) agreeableness
D) conscientiousness

Question 20

Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered ________.

A) improper hiring
B) negligent hiring
C) appropriate depending upon the job
D) negligent intent

Question 21

When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of reliability is likely being measured?

A) retest estimate
B) internal consistency
C) equivalent form
D) criterion validity

Question 22

Which of the following describes using an equivalent-form estimate to assess reliability?

A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
C) administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare participants' test scores for test one and test two
D) different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people

Question 23

Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?

A) one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
B) one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a different occasion
C) one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different occasions
D) one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way

Question 24

If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.

A) valid
B) reliable
C) unreliable
D) inconsistent

Question 25

If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.

A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable

Question 26

Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called ________ tests.

A) aptitude
B) intelligence
C) achievement
D) comprehensive

Question 27

What is the fourth thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?

A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

Question 28

________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests.

A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
C) Internal comparison estimate
D) Criterion validity

Question 29

Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability?

A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people
D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

Question 30

Which assessment method can be conducted one-on-one or with a panel?

A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) All of the above.

Question 31

________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyzes the degree to which responses to the items vary together.

A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
C) Internal consistency
D) Internal comparison estimate

Question 32

________ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.

A) Personality
B) Achievement
C) Cognitive
D) Physical ability

Question 33

The final step in the validation process is to ________.

A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
B) analyze the job
C) relate test scores and job criteria
D) cross-validate

Question 34

Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability?

A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people
D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

Question 35

Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable?

A) questions may not represent material
B) testing conditions could vary
C) the test may not predict actual performance
D) All of the above are reasons for unreliable tests.

Question 36

The first step in the validation process is to ________.

A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
B) analyze the job
C) administer tests
D) cross-validate

Question 37

The second step in the validation process is to ________.

A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
B) analyze the job
C) relate test scores and job criteria
D) cross-validate

Question 38

________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same test to the same people at two different points in time, and then compares the test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1.

A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
C) Internal consistency
D) Criterion validity

Question 39

Which of the following rights do test takers have under the American Psychological Association's standard for educational and psychological tests?

A) the right to confidentiality of test results
B) the right to informed consent
C) the right to expect that only qualified people will have access to the scores
D) All of the above.

Question 40

Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity?

A) demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test represent the tasks performed on the job
B) demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks performed on the job
C) demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work situation
D) demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like job performance

Question 41

Based on interviewer assessments of attractiveness and gender, which of the following would most likely receive the highest rating for an executive level position?

A) an attractive woman
B) an attractive man
C) an unattractive woman
D) There are no such biases based on attractiveness and gender.

Question 42

What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft?

A) personality tests
B) interest inventories
C) honesty tests
D) graphology

Question 43

The ________ is considered by many to be the most important screening tool.

A) telephone reference
B) reference letter
C) selection interview
D) management assessment center

Question 44

Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Human Resource Management. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview.

A) serial
B) panel
C) sequential
D) mass

Question 45

Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination, and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using ________ tests.

A) personality
B) motor and physical abilities
C) achievement
D) comprehensive

Question 46

Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job applicants except:

A) polygraph tests.
B) credit checks.
C) background checks.
D) honesty tests.

Question 47

In a mass interview, a team of individuals interviews the candidate in a ________ fashion.

A) serial
B) sequential
C) panel
D) systematic

Question 48

Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following except:

A) the in basket.
B) leaderless group discussion.
C) tests of motor abilities.
D) interviews.

Question 49

________ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.

A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Interest

Question 50

Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________.

A) numerology
B) astrology
C) handwriting analysis
D) polygraph output assessment

Question 51

A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries.

A) writing test
B) work sample simulation
C) interview
D) reference check

Question 52

When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview.

A) selection
B) appraisal
C) exit
D) structured

Question 53

________ tests measure a person's level of introversion, stability, and motivation.

A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Cognitive

Question 54

A ________ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's potential.

A) work sampling event
B) video-based situational testing
C) management assessment center
D) retreat

Question 55

What type of question is the following: "Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How would you proceed?"

A) situational
B) behavioral
C) puzzle
D) directive

Question 56

What type of question is the following: "Can you tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment?"

A) situational
B) behavioral
C) stress
D) puzzle

Question 57

The team holding the interviews for new auditors is behind in its recruiting quota. The team is most likely to rate the applicants ________ in this situation.

A) positively
B) neutrally
C) unacceptable
D) There is not enough information to determine.

Question 58

Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________.

A) age
B) marital status
C) legal eligibility
D) All of the above.

Question 59

Which of the following statements is an example of a situational question?

A) "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation."
B) "How have you handled ethical dilemmas in the past?"
C) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?"
D) "In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Tell me how you handled the situation."

Question 60

Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a job candidate?

A) legal eligibility for employment
B) age
C) credit ratings
D) motor vehicle record

Question 61

Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.

Question 62

The interview is the most widely used personnel selection procedure.

Question 63

Reliability confirms that one is measuring what one intends to measure.

Question 64

Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of those people in various occupations.

Question 65

Test validity answers the question, "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure?"

Question 66

There are six steps in the validation process beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with revalidation.

Question 67

An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency.

Question 68

Consider the following question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this?

A) background
B) behavioral
C) situational
D) structured

Question 69

Consider the following question: "What work experience do you have in marketing and sales?" What type of question is this?

A) background
B) behavioral
C) situational
D) job knowledge

Question 70

Most interviews are one-on-one.

Question 71

Avoiding negligent hiring claims requires taking every single precaution possible.

Question 72

A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

Question 73

A minority of HR managers check applicants' backgrounds.

Question 74

Lower-level workers such as clerks are cheap to hire.

Question 75

Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations.

Question 76

Criterion validity emphasizes judgment.

Question 77

Validity confirms that one is measuring something consistently.

Question 78

Effective selection depends to a large degree on the concept of validity but not reliability.

Question 79

Consider the following question: "Suppose you saw a co-worker who was not following standard work procedures. The co-worker claimed that the new procedure was better. What would you do?" What type of question is this?

A) background
B) past behavior
C) situational
D) job knowledge

Question 80

Consider the following question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?" What type of question is this?

A) background
B) past behavior
C) situational
D) job knowledge