Deck 9: Strategic Management

Question 1

Critical thinking is essential to:

A)Decision making.
B)Regulation adherence.
C)Policy adherence.
D)Strategic planning.

Answer 1

Decision making.

Question 2

What are the phases of the shared decision making process?

A)Defining objectives, generation of alternatives, determining the advantages and disadvantages of each alternative, selecting the best alternative, implementation and evaluation of the result.
B)Defining objectives, generation of alternatives, determining the advantages and disadvantages of each alternative, ranking the options, selecting the best alternative, implementation and evaluation of the result.
C)Defining objectives, generation of alternatives, determining the advantages and disadvantages of each alternative, ranking the options, implementation and evaluation of the result.
D)Defining objectives, generation of alternatives, determining the advantages and disadvantages of each alternative, ranking the options, selecting the best alternative, and evaluation of the result.

Answer 2

Defining objectives, generation of alternatives, determining the advantages and disadvantages of each alternative, ranking the options, selecting the best alternative, implementation and evaluation of the result.

Question 3

Which decision making model is the most expedient and the least time consuming?

A)Normative
B)Descriptive
C)Satisficing
D)Optimizing

Answer 3

Satisficing

Question 4

Which group decision making style often leads to the group floundering because of the lack of direction?

A)Laissez-faire
B)Descriptive
C)Democratic
D)Participative

Question 5

Which shared decision-making strategy is defined as a creative process where all members of the group contribute without any judgment, critique or discussion?

A)Delphi technique
B)Brainstorming
C)Fish boning
D)Nominal group process

Question 6

Porter-O'Grady describes a democratic, dynamic and egalitarian process that demands joint decision making and accountability. What process is this?

A)Collectivism
B)Learning organization
C)Collaboration
D)Shared governance

Question 7

Which decision making technique utilizes expert panels, surveys and questionnaires?

A)The Action technique
B)The Brainstorming technique
C)The Covey technique
D)The Delphi technique

Question 8

Which theory supports the belief that nursing is too unstable and not responsive enough to adapt to rapid change?

A)Chaos Theory
B)Havelock's Theory
C)Lewin's Theory
D)Order Theory

Question 9

Which theory is a linear approach to change?

A)Chaos Theory
B)Harrington's Theory
C)Lewin's Theory
D)Order Theory

Question 10

Change can be viewed as a linear or a nonlinear process. Which theory is a nonlinear approach to change?

A)Learning Organization Theory
B)Havelock's Theory
C)Rogers' Theory
D)Organizational Teaching Theory

Question 11

What are Senge's Five Disciplines of a learning organization?

A)Knowledge, persuasion, decisions, implementation and confirmation
B)Knowledge, persuasion, derisions, implementation and consultation
C)Systems thinking, organizational mastery, mental models, shared vision, and team learning
D)Systems thinking, personal mastery, mental models, shared vision, and team learning

Question 12

Which change strategy is correctly paired with its characteristics?

A)Empirical-Rational: Change occurs when there are powerful leaders who order it to occur
B)Power-Coercive: Change occurs when there are weak leaders who order it to occur
C)Normative-Reeducative: Changes in attitudes, values and relationships must occur before effective change
D)Field-Forced Field: Changes in attitudes, values and relationships must occur after effective change

Question 13

Which force is an external one that necessitates the need for change in health care environments?

A)Measures of low efficiency
B)Low patient satisfaction levels
C)Financial constraints
D)New legislation

Question 14

You are implementing a planned change process that follows Lewin's Change Theory. What is the purpose of the unfreezing strategies that you are using?

A)To overcome resistance
B)To prevent conflict
C)To facilitate indifference
D)To stabilize the change

Question 15

Which change theory is most appropriate for low level and low complexity changes?

A)Learning Organization Theory
B)Havelock's theory
C)Rogers' theory
D)Organizational Teaching Theory

Question 16

You have been asked to present your medical center's performance improvement strategies to a community group of nursing administrators. Which phase of the presentation process will be the lengthiest and most time consuming?

A)Planning the presentation
B)Designing visual aids and handouts
C)Practicing the presentation
D)Delivering the presentation

Question 17

You have been asked to present your medical center's performance improvement strategies to a community group of nursing administrators. Which of the following things should you consider during the planning phase?

A)The location of the group's meeting place
B)Preferred learning styles for each member
C)The entry level knowledge of the group
D)The mission of the nursing administrator group

Question 18

Which of the following is the most popular visual aid that is used during presentations?

A)Power Point
B)Excel
C)Word
D)Ancel Power

Question 19

Presentation nervousness and jitters are best prevented with:

A)A medication.
B)Practice.
C)A smile.
D)Audience control.

Question 20

What should you do if a presentation participant asks you a question that you do not know the answer to?

A)Try to guess the answer.
B)Tell the participant to look the answer up.
C)Decide not to answer any questions at all.
D)Admit that you do not know the answer.

Question 21

Presentations have structured aspects that are anticipated and planned for. They also have unstructured aspects that cannot be anticipated and planned for. Which of the following is an unstructured aspect of a presentation?

A)The presentation of goals
B)The evaluation process
C)Active audience participation and feedback
D)Your introduction

Question 22

Presenters are aware of the fact that all presentations are evaluated. Which kind of evaluation requires flexibility on the part of the presenter?

A)Formative evaluation
B)Summative evaluations
C)Formal evaluation
D)Longitudinal evaluation

Question 23

Which is a summative form of evaluation for a presentation?

A)Feedback before the presentation
B)Feedback during the presentation
C)A post presentation evaluation
D)A pre presentation evaluation

Question 24

Group presentations are useful for:

A)OSHA documentation.
B)JCAHO documentation.
C)Data management.
D)Strategic planning.

Question 25

Which of the following is the MOST essential to strategic management and performance improvement?

A)Information systems
B)Collegiality
C)Advanced statistics
D)Integrated management

Question 26

All forms of technology have benefits and risks. Some of the risks associated with electronic medical records are addressed with:

A)Timely documentation.
B)Documentation redundancies.
C)HIPAA Security Laws.
D)HIPAA Privacy Laws.

Question 27

The HIPAA Security Rule includes:

A)Security Standards for the Protection of Electronic Protected Health Information.
B)Security Standards for the Protection of Electronic Protected Medical Information.
C)Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Health Information.
D)Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Medical Information.

Question 28

You are serving as a member of the strategic management work group that is investigating new technology. Which of the following must be considered according to the HIPAA Security Rule?

A)Ease of use
B)Potential threats
C)Nurse preference
D)Lowest cost

Question 29

Clinical information systems must have built in safeguards. Which of the following is an example of a technical safeguard, as defined by the regulations of the HIPAA Security Rule?

A)Facility access locking and alarms.
B)Measures against unauthorized access
C)Workplace security measures
D)Disposal policies and procedures

Question 30

Clinical information systems must have built in safeguards. Which of the following is an example of an administrative safeguard, as defined by the regulations associated with the HIPAA Security Rule?

A)Audit control measures
B)Measures against unauthorized access
C)Integrity controls
D)Workforce education

Question 31

The National Rural Health Resource Center and the Rural Assistance Center have developed a (n):

A)HIPAA Security Safeguards System
B)Information Technology Teaching Kit.
C)Health Information Technology Toolkit.
D)Health Information Teaching Kit.

Question 32

Which of the following is a popular project management bar graph that is used for project plans and to track project tasks over time?

A)Scatter chart
B)Wringley chart
C)Gantt chart
D)Fishbone chart

Question 33

Which project management technique analyzes tasks and the minimum amount of time that is required to complete each task and the entire project?

A)Six Sigma
B)Monte Carlo Technique
C)Logic Network
D)Program Evaluation and Review Technique

Question 34

Many nursing managers fail to complete projects in a timely manner because they become consumed with clinical responsibilities and problems. What skill can you use avoid this pitfall?

A)Innovation
B)Implementation
C)Design
D)Delegation

Question 35

Covey and Merrill have developed a priority setting model that labels tasks as:

A)Urgent, nonurgent, important and unimportant
B)Urgent, nonurgent, clinical and personal
C)Urgent, nonurgent, minor and major
D)Urgent, nonurgent, doable and not doable

Question 36

Which Covey and Merrill classification is done most often, even by procrastinators?

A)Nonurgent and unimportant tasks
B)Nonurgent but important tasks
C)Urgent and unimportant tasks
D)Urgent and important tasks

Question 37

Which of the following principles aids the managing information aspect of project management?

A)The Overload principle
B)The Risk Benefit principle
C)The Pareto principle
D)The MOSCOV principle

Question 38

You notice that one of the most successful nursing managers in your medical center has a fastidiously neat and organized office. What aspect of project management does this neat and organized office suggest to you?

A)Data management
B)Goal definition
C)Time management
D)Priority setting

Question 39

Project managers are challenged with planning, executing and closing projects. Project managers must always be aware of the traditional triple constraints of projects. These triple constraints are:

A)Scope, scale and sequence
B)Cost, staff and resources
C)Cost, time and scope
D)Design, process and scope

Question 40

A plan that is designed to address a potential problem or threat is what kind of plan?

A)A contingency plan
B)A reactive plan
C)A mandated plan
D)A proactive plan

Question 41

Which law is associated with hazardous materials contingency plans and contingency regulations?

A)NLRA
B)CRAR
C)RCRA
D)NLRB

Question 42

Red plugs and emergency generators are examples of:

A)Voluntary internal disaster contingencies.
B)Mandatory internal disaster contingencies.
C)Voluntary external disaster contingencies.
D)Mandatory external disaster contingencies.

Question 43

All hospital emergency contingency plans must be:

A)Flexible and fluid.
B)Revised at least annually.
C)Routinely reviewed and practiced.
D)Flexible and annually reviewed.

Question 44

Hospital emergency contingency plans relating to bioterrorism address the Centers for Disease Control's categories A, B, and C. What of the following is a category B agent?

A)Anthrax
B)Smallpox
C)Botulinum toxin
D)Brucellosis

Question 45

Which of the following is a recent event that precipitated the need for contingency planning in health care facilities?

A)Swine flu
B)Guillain Barre
C)Fasciitis
D)Brucellosis

Question 46

Which word best summarizes contingency plans?

A)Costly
B)Lengthy
C)Redundancies
D)Cumbersome

Question 47

Backup contingency plans are often referred to as:

A)Plan A
B)Plan B
C)Plan C
D)Plan D