Deck 2: Beginnings

Question 1

A chromosome is a rod-shaped structure found within the nuclei of cells.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

The field of biology that studies heredity is called genetics.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

Factorial problems stem from the interaction of heredity and environmental factors.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

Cystic fibrosis is caused by a dominant gene.

Question 5

Genotypes are the actual sets of traits we exhibit that reflect both genetic and environmental influences.

Question 6

The Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart studied DZ twins reared in separate households.

Question 7

The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus.

Question 8

Endometriosis has become fairly common among women who delay childbearing.

Question 9

Endometriosis can obstruct the fallopian tubes, where conception normally takes place.

Question 10

Surrogate mothers bring babies to term through other women who are fertile.

Question 11

Postimplantation genetic diagnosis was developed to detect genetic disorders, but it also reveals the sex of the embryo.

Question 12

Growth of the organ systems near the spine occurs earlier than growth of the extremities.

Question 13

At approximately 21 days after implantation, three ridges appear in the embryo and fold to compose the neural tube, from which the nervous system will develop.

Question 14

The mother usually feels the first fetal movements in the middle of the fourth month.

Question 15

The fetus will probably not contract syphilis if an infected mother is treated with antibiotics before the fourth month of pregnancy.

Question 16

Rh incompatibility occurs when a woman who does not have this factor - and is thus Rh positive - is carrying an Rh-negative fetus.

Question 17

Vitamins have been shown to be completely safe for pregnant women to take.

Question 18

During transition, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, and the head of the fetus begins to move into the vagina.

Question 19

Cuban Americans have the lowest child mortality rate.

Question 20

According to Figure 2.1 in the text, which of the following is the smallest unit?

A) cell
B) chromosome
C) nucleus
D) DNA

Question 21

Which of the following utilizes partnering to create a DNA strand?

A) mitosis
B) meiosis
C) ovulation
D) reduction division

Question 22

How can a genetic code be altered?

A) Through mitosis
B) Through meiosis
C) Through mutation
D) Through reduction division

Question 23

David and Sharon just had a baby boy. Sharon jokes that David arranged a boy on purpose. The doctor laughs, and then explains that which of the following is ultimately responsible for the baby boy's gender?

A) The 22nd pair of autosomes
B) The 46 pairs of chromosomes
C) The 23rd pair of chromosomes
D) The 23 pairs of autosomes

Question 24

Lisa is writing a research paper on twins and in the research process, finds out that which of the following women would be most likely to have twins?

A) A 25-year-old woman with twin cousins
B) A 40 year-old woman with a mother who was a twin
C) A 30-year-old woman with a father who was a twin
D) A 35-year-old woman thinking about taking fertility drugs

Question 25

Kali and Kelly are identical twins. What caused this?

A) A single zygote split into two.
B) A single zygote was fertilized twice.
C) Two separate zygotes were fertilized by the same sperm.
D) Two separate zygotes were fertilized at two separate times within the same month.

Question 26

Which of the following would be an example of a dominant trait?

A) blonde hair
B) blue eyes
C) red hair
D) brown eyes

Question 27

If one parent has brown eyes, and the child has a recessive allele for blue eyes from both parents, what is likely to happen?

A) The child will have brown eyes.
B) The child will have green eyes.
C) The child will have blue eyes.
D) The child will have either brown eyes or blue eyes.

Question 28

Which of the following is an example of a recessive trait?

A) Curly hair
B) Type A blood
C) Lactose tolerance
D) Lack of dimples

Question 29

Which of the following reflects an abnormality somewhere in the first 22 pairs of autosomes?

A) Klinefelter syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Sex-linked syndrome
D) Down syndrome

Question 30

Which of the following causes Down's syndrome?

A) The 46 chromosomes
B) An excess 21st chromosome
C) An excess 23rd chromosome
D) The 23rd chromosome

Question 31

Which of the following would be a disease that would occur through a dominant gene?

A) Phenylketonuria
B) Huntington's disease
C) Sickle-cell anemia
D) Tay-Sachs disease

Question 32

Which of the following individuals is most likely to have sickle-cell anemia?

A) A Jewish child
B) An African American adult
C) A White child
D) A Latin American adult

Question 33

Which of the following would result in mental retardation after an excess of an amino acid?

A) Phenylketonuria
B) Huntington's disease
C) Sickle-cell anemia
D) Tay-Sachs disease

Question 34

Which of the following genetic disorders results in respiratory complications and death in young adulthood?

A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Muscular dystrophy
D) Hemophilia

Question 35

Which of the following individuals has the greatest chance of contracting a sex-linked genetic abnormality?

A) A male with a mother with muscular dystrophy
B) A female with a mother with muscular dystrophy
C) A male with a father with muscular dystrophy
D) A female with a father with muscular dystrophy

Question 36

Which of the following would be a procedure that would be used on a pregnant woman over 40-years-old?

A) genetic counseling
B) amniocentesis
C) sonogram
D) ultrasound

Question 37

Angela and Greg would like to know the gender of their baby, but they want to do so as safely as possible. Which of the following procedures would you recommend?

A) amniocentesis
B) CVS
C) ultrasound
D) genetic counseling

Question 38

Which of the following is used sparingly as it carries the greatest risk of miscarriage?

A) CVS
B) ultrasound
C) amniocentesis
D) early amniocentesis

Question 39

Which of the following genetic diseases would not be revealed with a parental blood test before pregnancy?

A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) Huntington's disease
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Sickle-cell anemia

Question 40

Pamela's father was a calm, quiet man. Pamela tends to be calm and quiet as well, unless she is playing soccer, her favorite sport. What does her aggressiveness on the field indicate?

A) The effects of her chromosomes
B) The effects of her genotypes
C) The effects of her phenotypes
D) The effects of her environment

Question 41

Which of the following people would Ann be closest to genetically?

A) her grandmother
B) her brother
C) her aunt
D) her cousin

Question 42

Paul and Peter seem identical in almost every way. They have the same taste in music. They have the same facial expressions and features. They drive the same car, and they work in the same professional field. Since they did not grow up together, what explanation is there for this?

A) There is an environmental basis for their behaviors.
B) They are dizygotic twins.
C) They have a strong instinctive connection.
D) There is a strong genetic basis for their behaviors.

Question 43

Who of the following would be more likely to share autism?

A) male siblings
B) female siblings
C) DZ twins
D) MZ twins

Question 44

Nancy and Sarah were separated at birth and raised in separate households. They did not have contact with each other and were not aware that they were twins. Researchers studied them to see if there were any similarities in their behaviors and traits. What is this type of research called?

A) twin studies
B) trait studies
C) kinship studies
D) adoption studies

Question 45

How do sperm reach the ovum?

A) They travel randomly through the cervix and uterus to the fallopian tube with the released ovum.
B) They follow the scent of released chemicals through the cervix to the fallopian tube containing a released ovum.
C) They follow the scent of released chemicals through the fallopian tube to the cervix where the ovum has been released.
D) They travel randomly through the fallopian tube to the cervix where the ovum has been released.

Question 46

How many sperm cells are necessary to fertilize an ovum?

A) 1
B) 100
C) 1,000
D) 1,000,000

Question 47

What concept describes the time in which the sperm penetrates the ovum and unites with it?

A) conception
B) fertility
C) endometrium
D) implantation

Question 48

When are ova present in the female body?

A) At birth
B) In childhood before puberty
C) During puberty
D) During menstruation

Question 49

What is released during menstruation?

A) The unfertilized egg and the lining of the fallopian tube
B) The unfertilized egg and the cilia
C) The unfertilized egg and the lining of the ovaries
D) The unfertilized egg and the lining of the uterus

Question 50

What is one explanation for why more boys than girls are conceived?

A) The X sex chromosome swims faster than the Y sex chromosome.
B) The Y sex chromosome swims faster than the X sex chromosome.
C) There are more X sex chromosomes than Y sex chromosomes.
D) There are more Y sex chromosomes than X sex chromosomes.

Question 51

How do sperm cells develop?

A) Through meiosis, with the X sex chromosomes splitting from the Y sex chromosomes to form 23 chromosomes.
B) Through meiosis, with the X sex chromosomes splitting from the Y sex chromosomes to form 23 pairs of chromosomes.
C) Through mitosis, with the X sex chromosomes splitting from the Y sex chromosomes to form 23 chromosomes.
D) Through mitosis, with the X sex chromosomes splitting from the Y sex chromosomes to form 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Question 52

Which of the following is an obstacle sperm face in attempting to reach the ovum?

A) Only a few viable sperm are ejaculated.
B) Vaginal acidity kills many sperm.
C) Most sperm travel randomly and do not go in the right direction.
D) The cilia are designed to keep out foreign objects.

Question 53

Why does only one sperm enter the ova?

A) A chemical is released to prevent others from entering.
B) More than one sperm enter the ova but do not fertilize the egg.
C) The ova only has room for one sperm.
D) The chemical used to attract sperm ceases once one sperm enters the ova.

Question 54

Adam and Maria have been trying to get pregnant for eight months. They are in your office and wonder when they will be able to go through infertility procedures. What do you advise?

A) Infertility is normally diagnosed after trying for six months.
B) Infertility is normally diagnosed after trying for eight months.
C) Infertility is normally diagnosed after trying for ten months.
D) Infertility is normally diagnosed after trying for twelve months.

Question 55

Which of the following would be one of the likeliest reasons for infertility in men?

A) diabetes
B) sexually transmitted infection
C) medication
D) low sperm count

Question 56

Daniel and Sasha are very active and healthy. They eat right and exercise daily. Daniel often engages in long distance runs and then takes a hot bath before he and Sasha have sexual intercourse. When they visit a specialist about their inability to conceive, what is one issue that the physician will likely point out?

A) The warm water from the bath would help Sarah conceive.
B) Sarah is probably exercising too much.
C) David's runs could be causing issues with conception.
D) David needs to take a shower instead.

Question 57

What is one reason that fertility drugs can cause multiple births?

A) The ovum splits during conception.
B) Ovulation permits ovum to remain viable for longer periods of time.
C) The ovum splits after conception.
D) Ovulation occurs more than once, ripening more than one ovum.

Question 58

Which of the following is a means of fertilizing the ovum by injecting larger amounts of sperm into the uterus?

A) motility
B) artificial insemination
C) in vitro fertilization
D) donor in vitro fertilization

Question 59

What procedure is actually the mode that gave rise to the phrase "test tube babies"?

A) in vitro fertilization
B) surrogate mothers
C) artificial insemination
D) adoption

Question 60

What occurs when ova are produced by someone other than the intended mother?

A) in vitro fertilization
B) donor IVF
C) surrogacy
D) artificial insemination

Question 61

Which of the following helps couples select the gender of the child?

A) in vitro fertilization
B) donor IVF
C) motility
D) preimplantation genetic diagnosis

Question 62

How long is a normal gestation period?

A) 260 days
B) 270 days
C) 280 days
D) 290 days

Question 63

Which stage occurs around the third through eighth weeks of pregnancy?

A) gestation stage
B) germinal stage
C) embryonic stage
D) fetal stage

Question 64

Where do cells begin to separate into groups that will eventually become different structures?

A) The embryonic disk
B) The blastocyst
C) The trophoblast
D) The zygote

Question 65

Why does the blastocyst implant on the uterine wall?

A) To maintain warmth
B) To form the zygote
C) To create the neural tube
D) To provide nourishment

Question 66

Which of the following forms the digestive and respiratory systems in the embryonic stage?

A) ectoderm
B) neural tube
C) endoderm
D) mesoderm

Question 67

Which of the following develops into the reproductive system?

A) ectoderm
B) endoderm
C) neural tube
D) mesoderm

Question 68

At what point in development will an embryo begin to "look" like an infant?

A) one month
B) two months
C) three months
D) four months

Question 69

At what point in embryonic development would a sonographer be able to tell the sex of an infant?

A) one month
B) two months
C) three months
D) four months

Question 70

Which of the following acts as a filter for food and oxygen for the fetus?

A) amniotic sac
B) amniotic fluid
C) placenta
D) uterus

Question 71

How is alcohol able to affect the fetus?

A) The mother and fetus share circulatory systems.
B) The mother transmits what she ingests through the uterine wall.
C) The mother and fetus share digestive systems.
D) The mother transmits what she ingests through the placenta.

Question 72

Which of the following normally occurs by the end of the first trimester?

A) thumb sucking
B) gender identity
C) opening and shutting eyes
D) waking and sleeping periods

Question 73

Kesha is in the 32nd week of her pregnancy and there are indications that she might deliver early. Kesha is worried that the baby will have potentially fatal distress if she is born prematurely. What would you tell her?

A) Chances of survival are nearly 60%.
B) Chances of survival are nearly 70%.
C) Chances of survival are nearly 80%.
D) Chances of survival are nearly 90%.

Question 74

Kali swears her baby can hear her voice and responds with kicks. She backs this up with information from a study by Sontag and Richards. What is the evidence she is citing?

A) Infants kicking while the mother is listening to music
B) Infants moving at the sound of a bell
C) Infants calming down to the music mom likes
D) Infants coming out of the womb with an affinity for certain music

Question 75

According to researchers, what is one reason that fetuses can discriminate pitch?

A) The fetus looks toward the sound.
B) The fetus wakes up.
C) The fetus has a change in heart rate.
D) The fetus assumes a listening stance.

Question 76

Yolanda is in her ninth month of pregnancy and is worried because she is not feeling the baby move around quite as much as before. What advice would you give her?

A) The space is more cramped, so activity is reduced.
B) The fetus is sleeping more.
C) The fetus is getting ready to enter the birth canal.
D) The fetus is potentially in trouble and emergency measures should be taken.

Question 77

Which of the following is defined as any environmental agent that can harm the embryo or fetus?

A) syphilis
B) teratogen
C) rubella
D) deficiency

Question 78

At which point is the heart past the vulnerable point of developing an abnormality from a teratogen?

A) six weeks
B) seven weeks
C) eight weeks
D) nine weeks

Question 79

When do eyes develop beyond the critical period for major abnormal development from teratogens?

A) seven weeks
B) eight weeks
C) nine weeks
D) ten weeks

Question 80

Which of the following refers to a condition that is present at birth and results from genetic or chromosomal abnormalities?

A) congenital
B) phenotypical
C) teratogenic
D) dysfunctional