A 25-year-old woman comes to the office due to progressive fatigue and dizziness for several months. She also has intermittent loose stools and abdominal cramps but no hematochezia, melena, vomiting, or abnormal menses. Vital signs are within normal limits. Conjunctival pallor is present. The abdomen is mildly distended but nontender. Laboratory evaluation reveals anemia and a low ferritin level. Fecal occult blood testing is negative. An upper endoscopy is performed and reveals no visible abnormalities of the stomach or duodenum, although biopsies of the duodenum are significant for intraepithelial lymphocytosis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Brush border enzyme deficiency
B) Helicobacter pylori infection
C) HLA-associated autoimmune disorder
D) Irritable bowel syndrome
E) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Correct Answer:
Verified
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