A 60-year-old woman comes to the office with persistent, profuse mucoid diarrhea. Despite not eating much for the past 2 days, her diarrhea has not decreased, but she has no other symptoms. The patient has not had age-appropriate colon cancer screening. Family history is unremarkable. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs and cardiopulmonary examination are normal. The abdomen is soft and nondistended. There is no hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory studies show hypokalemia and microcytic anemia. Colonoscopy reveals a 2.5-cm, cauliflower-like mass in the sigmoid colon. The mass is resected and the histopathology of the lesion is shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Carcinoid tumor
B) Hamartomatous polyp
C) Hyperplastic polyp
D) Signet ring cell carcinoma
E) Villous adenoma
Correct Answer:
Verified
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