A 71-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to progressive dyspnea and orthopnea for the last week. She has a history of myocardial infarction and systolic heart failure with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 15%. The patient is compliant with her medications, which include carvedilol, furosemide, aspirin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin. Blood pressure is 118/74 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min. Examination reveals elevated jugular venous pressure, bibasilar crackles, an S3 heart sound, and bilateral lower extremity pitting edema. The patient is started on dobutamine infusion, which provides significant symptom relief. Echocardiogram shows mild improvement in cardiac contractility. Which of the following is the likely mechanism underlying this patient's clinical improvement?
A) Cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase inhibition
B) Gs protein-adenylate cyclase activation
C) Late-phase inward sodium channel inhibition
D) Sodium-potassium exchange pump inhibition
E) Soluble guanylate cyclase activation
F) Voltage-dependent calcium channel inhibition
Correct Answer:
Verified
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