A 25-year-old previously healthy man comes to the office due to penile lesions. The patient first noticed a nontender papule on his penis a month ago, and it has progressively increased in size and number. He reports no fever, dysuria, or penile discharge. The patient is sexually active with multiple partners and uses condoms inconsistently. Physical examination reveals 3 soft, flesh-colored, papillary lesions measuring <1 cm on the dorsum of the penis. There are no enlarged inguinal lymph nodes, and the remainder of the examination is normal. Treatment is started with a topical agent that acts as a toll-like receptor agonist to increase antiviral cytokine production. Which of the following medications was most likely prescribed to this patient?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Imiquimod
C) Pimecrolimus
D) Salicylic acid
E) Silver nitrate
Correct Answer:
Verified
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