A 26-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for a contraception counseling visit. The patient has been using a progestin-only pill for contraception since giving birth a year ago. She would like to switch to a combined hormonal contraceptive as she is no longer breastfeeding. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no other daily medications. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of pregnancy prevention when the patient switches to a combined hormonal contraceptive?
A) Decreased release of gonadotropins
B) Decreased serum sex hormone-binding globulin levels
C) Increased cervical mucous viscosity
D) Increased gonadotropin-releasing hormone pulsatile activity
E) Impaired embryo implantation within the endometrium
Correct Answer:
Verified
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