A 72-year-old man comes to the office due to watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps. The symptoms began several days after he started chemotherapy for metastatic colon cancer. He denies hematochezia, melena, or bulky, foul-smelling stools. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory testing reveals no electrolyte abnormalities and no leukocytosis. Stool testing is negative for infection and fecal occult blood. The patient is advised to take a medication after each loose stool. The medication works by inhibiting the release of acetylcholine in the intestinal wall but does not cross the blood-brain barrier. Which of the following is the most likely medication prescribed for this patient?
A) Aprepitant
B) Bismuth subsalicylate
C) Fentanyl
D) Loperamide
E) Neostigmine
F) Octreotide
Correct Answer:
Verified
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