A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding over the past 2 days. Today, the pain has increased, but she has had no nausea, vomiting, or orthostasis. The patient was treated for chlamydia cervicitis 3 years ago. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. On pelvic examination, the uterus is small and mobile and there is left adnexal tenderness. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a complex, 2-cm left adnexal mass with a gestational sac and yolk sac; there is no intrauterine pregnancy or free fluid. The patient is counseled on recommended medical treatment. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the agent of choice for this patient?
A) Blocks progesterone receptors, resulting in uterine contractions
B) Decreases LH secretion, causing endometrial thinning
C) Induces prostaglandin-mediated uterine contractions
D) Inhibits DNA synthesis to destroy actively proliferating fetal cells
E) Produces local inflammation to impair implantation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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