A 35-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with fever, chills, and sore throat for the past 4 days. Except for a temperature of 38.3 C (101.0 F) , her other vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows pharyngeal and tonsillar erythema without exudates and bilateral tender cervical lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination is normal. Point-of-care testing for group A streptococcus is negative. The patient is diagnosed with viral pharyngitis and prescribed symptomatic therapy. She returns 3 days later due to a persistent fever, sore throat, and progressive dysphagia.
Her temperature now is 38.9 C (102.0 F) , blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg, pulse is 90 /min, and respirations are 16 /min. Physical examination remains unchanged from 3 days ago except that she appears more ill. Point-of-care testing for the Epstein-Barr virus is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Epstein-Barr virus serology
B) Group A streptococcus throat culture
C) HIV ELISA testing
D) Lateral neck x-ray
E) Upper GI endoscopy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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