A 58-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with 5 days of progressive headaches and dizziness. She is a business executive who is very active in her spare time. She takes no medications.
Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows bilateral normal reflexes and sensation and no neck stiffness. Pupils are equal and reactive to light. Gag reflex is intact. There is no peripheral lymphadenopathy.
Laboratory results are as follows:
CT scan of the head with contrast shows a solitary frontal 2x3 cm lesion at the gray-white matter junction with vasogenic edema confirmed on magnetic resonance imaging. CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals a spiculated 2.5 cm right upper-lung mass with ipsilateral bronchial lymphadenopathy but no other evidence of metastatic disease.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's brain lesion?
A) Brain surgery
B) Combination chemotherapy
C) Hospice care
D) Sunitinib
E) Whole-brain radiation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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