A 36-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to right lower leg pain and ankle edema. Her symptoms began 2 days ago after a 14-hour flight from India. The patient has had no leg trauma, fever, chest pain, or shortness of breath. She has a history of asthma and takes inhaled albuterol as needed. The patient has no family history of blood clots.
Temperature is 36.8 C (98.2 F) , blood pressure is 142/72 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 16/min. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. There is 2+ right lower extremity pitting edema extending to the mid-calf, and right foot dorsiflexion results in right calf pain. Left lower extremity examination is normal. Stool guaiac is negative. Laboratory results are as follows:
Compression ultrasonography of the right lower extremity shows no evidence of deep venous thrombosis. D-dimer is 65 µg/mL (normal: <0.5) .
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Advise symptomatic care with no other interventions
B) Obtain CT angiography of the right lower extremity
C) Perform thrombophilia screening
D) Prescribe rivaroxaban for 3 months
E) Recommend repeat compression ultrasonography
Correct Answer:
Verified
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