A 38-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to confusion. Her husband says she has had a headache and acted strangely for the past 24 hours. He had difficulty awakening her this morning and observed 2 short episodes of rhythmic jerking of her right arm. The patient has no known medical problems and takes no medications. Family and social history are unremarkable.
Temperature is 39.1 C (102.4 F) , blood pressure is 116/62 mm Hg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 18/min. BMI is 25 kg/m2. The patient is lethargic and her clothes are soiled with urine. Mucous membranes are moist. Funduscopic examination is normal. The patient responds to verbal stimulation and follows simple commands but is oriented to person only. There is no neck stiffness, and the remainder of the physical examination is normal.
Serum chemistry, complete blood count, and coagulation studies are remarkable only for a leukocyte count of 14,000/mm3 with 88% neutrophils. Chest x-ray and urinalysis are normal. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Noncontrast CT scan of the head shows no acute intracranial findings. Lumbar puncture results are as follows:
Cerebrospinal fluid culture and herpes simplex virus PCR are sent, and intravenous acyclovir is ordered. Which of the following additional interventions is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Continuous telemetry monitoring
B) Droplet precautions for 24 hours
C) Intravenous normal saline at 125 mL/hr
D) Proton pump inhibitor therapy
E) Soft limb restraints
Correct Answer:
Verified
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