A 67-year-old man is hospitalized with cough, shortness of breath, orthopnea, and ankle swelling. He is treated with intravenous diuretics. He was diagnosed with non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction 3 weeks ago and had a right coronary artery stent placed. On discharge, the patient's left ventricular ejection fraction was 40%. On the sixth day of his current hospitalization, he feels better but still complains of some shortness of breath. His platelet count is 62,000/µL, down from 210,000/µL on admission.
The other laboratory results are as follows:
Subcutaneous injections of unfractionated heparin for deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis are stopped and the nurses are instructed not to use heparin flushes. Appropriate laboratory workup is sent.
Which of the following should be used for preventing thromboembolism in this patient?
A) Ambulation as tolerated only
B) Argatroban
C) Compression stockings only
D) Enoxaparin
E) Warfarin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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