An 80-year-old man fell at home and sustained a hip fracture. On the day after repair, physical therapy team members notice that the patient's post-operative hemoglobin is 8.6 g/dL. They recommend a blood transfusion, which may allow the patient greater participation in rehabilitation and a more rapid recovery.
The patient's admitting ECG showed evidence of an old inferior myocardial infarction. At that time, his pre-operative hemoglobin was 11.5 g/dL. Two years ago, he experienced pedal edema and dyspnea with exertion requiring diuretics for presumed mild congestive heart failure.
The patient is currently resting comfortably and has no chest pain or pressure, dyspnea, or fatigue. His blood pressure is 130/84 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min and regular. Oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is normal. The lungs are clear to auscultation. There is a grade 2/6 systolic murmur along the upper left sternal border. There is trace pedal edema bilaterally to the shin.
Repeat hemoglobin is 8.5 g/dL and mean corpuscular volume is 89 fL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management of this patient's low hemoglobin?
A) Erythropoietin and iron
B) No treatment at this time
C) One unit packed red blood cells only
D) Transfusion as required to keep hemoglobin above 10 g/dL
E) Transfusion as required to keep hemoglobin above 12 g/dL
Correct Answer:
Verified
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