A 22-year-old hospitalized woman is evaluated for thrombocytopenia. Three days ago, she was hospitalized due to lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and fever. She was diagnosed with a septic abortion, was initiated on cefotetan and doxycycline, and underwent dilation and curettage. Platelet count at admission was 154,000/mm3; yesterday it was noted to be 89,000/mm3, with a further decrease on this morning's results. She has had no epistaxis or visible blood in the urine or stool but has had mild headache and fatigue. The patient has no known medical problems and no history of blood disorders.
Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows scattered ecchymoses but is otherwise unremarkable, including benign abdominal and pelvic examinations.
Complete laboratory results from today are as follows:
Direct Coombs test is negative. Peripheral blood smear shows decreased platelets, polychromatophilic red blood cells, and multiple schistocytes with no platelet clumping.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's thrombocytopenia?
A) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C) Drug-induced immune thrombocytopenia
D) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
E) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct Answer:
Verified
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