A 41-year-old previously healthy man is admitted to the hospital with 3 days of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. He was found to have acute necrotizing pancreatitis due to alcohol use. His hospital course was complicated by hypotension requiring 8 L of intravenous fluids. He subsequently developed bilateral infiltrates and refractory hypoxemia requiring intubation and mechanical ventilation. While in the intensive care unit, he develops low-grade fevers and worsening hypoxemia requiring 100% FiO2 and positive end-expiratory pressure of 12. Cultures are obtained and antibiotic coverage is broadened. His blood and urine cultures show no growth 48 hours later. However, sputum culture grows Candida species.
Laboratory results are as follows:
A repeat chest x-ray shows persistent bilateral infiltrates and new small bilateral pleural effusions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's positive sputum culture?
A) Fluconazole
B) Micafungin
C) No antifungal drug treatment
D) Repeat respiratory cultures
E) Thoracentesis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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